Diagnostic test corrections
Earth's Systems and Resources 61%
5). Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II.CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H20
(A) II and III
(B) II, III, and V
(C) II, III, IV, and V
(D) I, II, III, and IV
(E) all are greenhouse gases
My response: (A) II and III
I chose this because I knew that both carbon dioxide and methane are greenhouse gases, since those were the two answers I was positive about I chose them as my answer.
Correct answer: (C) II, III, IV, and V
Nitrogen (N2) is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon (Ar), have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
6). Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by the Ferrel cells?"
(A) Ecuador- near the equator
(B) Antarctica
(C) Greenland
(D) Mid-western states of the United States (e.g Nebraska, Kansas, etc.)
(E) Southern Africa
My response: (C) Greenland
This was a complete guess, I had no idea what a Ferrel cell was.
Correct answer: (E) Southern Africa
The overall movement of the surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the United States including mid-western states occur in the Hadley Cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while the Antarctic and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
7). Which of the following events about El Nino are TRUE?
I. Just prior to an El Nino, the sea surface warms in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
II. Just prior to an El Nino, trade winds weaken
III. During an El Nino, the number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean increases
IV. During an El Nino, upwelling increases along the western coast of South America resulting in large schools of fish
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) III
(E) I, III, and IV
My response: (E) I, III, and IV
Another guess, I was only certain of the ocean warming, and chose the answer that contained I but also other possibilities.
Correct Answer: (C)
El Nino episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Nino years) limits the amount of the nutrients brought to shallower depths by the upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
8). Water in areas of upwelling is generally
(A) warm and lacking in nutrients
(B) warm and high in nutrients
(C) cold and lacking in nutrients
(D) cold and high in nutrients
(E) very hot due to thermal vents and contain high amounts of sulfur
My response: (B) warm and high in nutrients
I guessed, I could not remember what upwelling was and assumed it was the upward movement of warm water.
Correct response: (D) cold and high in nutrients
Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient depleted surface water. The increased availability in the upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient enriched waters and global fishery yields.
11) Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about ____ rate or worldwide population growth.
(A) one half the
(B) same
(C) twice the
(D) four times the
(E) eight times the
My response: (D) four times the
Im a bit of a pessimist and water is one of the resources that is not only becoming more scarce but is abused without thought, so I went with the answer that seemed most appropriate to my views.
Correct answer: (C) twice the
Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
The Living World 50%
15). Which of the following is NOT an example of commensalism?
(A) Bird known as cattle egrets forage in fields among cattle or other livestock. As cattle, horses, and other livestock graze on the field, they cause movements that stir up various insects. As the insects are stirred up, the cattle egrets following the livestock catch and feed upon them.
(B) In India, lone golden jackals expelled from their pack have been known to attach themselves to a particular tiger, trailing it at a safe distance in order to feed on the big cat's kills.
(C) Bacteria living in the stomachs of cows and and other ruminant animals.
(D) Birds will often follow an army ant raids on a forest floor. As the army ant colony travels on the forest floor, it stirs up various flying insect species. As the insects flee from the army ants, the birds following the ants catch the fleeing insects.
(E) Orchids and mosses grow on the trunks or branches of trees. They get the light they need as well as nutrients that run down along the tree.
My response: (E) Orchids and mosses grow on the trunks or branches of trees. They get the light they need as well as nutrients that run down along the tree.
I read the question wrong, I went with an answer that was commensalism and was confused because to me at least two of the answers were an example of commensalism.
Correct answer: (C) Bacteria living in the stomachs of cows and and other ruminant animals.
Commensalism is a class of relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits but the other is unaffected. Cows eat grass and hay almost exclusively. Cows. and other ruminant animals, have a special type of stomach called a rumen, which is home to billions of microbes that consume grass and hay. These bacteria, fungi, and protists provide nutrients that the cow can digest. Without these microbes, the cow would die. The ungulates benefit from the cellulase produced by the bacteria, which facilitates digestion; the bacteria benefit from having a stable supply of nutrients in the host environment.
17)Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)?
(A) mutualism
(B) commensalism
(C) parasitism
(D) territoriality
(E) predation
My response: (A) mutualism
I confused intra (within) with inter (between) so I thought it meant interactions among different species.
Correct answer: (D) Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions.
18) The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora include surface seaweeds and whose fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
(A) intertidal zone
(B) pelagic zone
(C) benthic zone
(D) abyssal zone
(E) hadal zone
My response: none
Either no time, or genuine no idea what this is, most likely both
Correct answer: (B)
5). Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II.CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H20
(A) II and III
(B) II, III, and V
(C) II, III, IV, and V
(D) I, II, III, and IV
(E) all are greenhouse gases
My response: (A) II and III
I chose this because I knew that both carbon dioxide and methane are greenhouse gases, since those were the two answers I was positive about I chose them as my answer.
Correct answer: (C) II, III, IV, and V
Nitrogen (N2) is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon (Ar), have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
6). Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by the Ferrel cells?"
(A) Ecuador- near the equator
(B) Antarctica
(C) Greenland
(D) Mid-western states of the United States (e.g Nebraska, Kansas, etc.)
(E) Southern Africa
My response: (C) Greenland
This was a complete guess, I had no idea what a Ferrel cell was.
Correct answer: (E) Southern Africa
The overall movement of the surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the United States including mid-western states occur in the Hadley Cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while the Antarctic and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
7). Which of the following events about El Nino are TRUE?
I. Just prior to an El Nino, the sea surface warms in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
II. Just prior to an El Nino, trade winds weaken
III. During an El Nino, the number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean increases
IV. During an El Nino, upwelling increases along the western coast of South America resulting in large schools of fish
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) III
(E) I, III, and IV
My response: (E) I, III, and IV
Another guess, I was only certain of the ocean warming, and chose the answer that contained I but also other possibilities.
Correct Answer: (C)
El Nino episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Nino years) limits the amount of the nutrients brought to shallower depths by the upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
8). Water in areas of upwelling is generally
(A) warm and lacking in nutrients
(B) warm and high in nutrients
(C) cold and lacking in nutrients
(D) cold and high in nutrients
(E) very hot due to thermal vents and contain high amounts of sulfur
My response: (B) warm and high in nutrients
I guessed, I could not remember what upwelling was and assumed it was the upward movement of warm water.
Correct response: (D) cold and high in nutrients
Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient depleted surface water. The increased availability in the upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient enriched waters and global fishery yields.
11) Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about ____ rate or worldwide population growth.
(A) one half the
(B) same
(C) twice the
(D) four times the
(E) eight times the
My response: (D) four times the
Im a bit of a pessimist and water is one of the resources that is not only becoming more scarce but is abused without thought, so I went with the answer that seemed most appropriate to my views.
Correct answer: (C) twice the
Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
The Living World 50%
15). Which of the following is NOT an example of commensalism?
(A) Bird known as cattle egrets forage in fields among cattle or other livestock. As cattle, horses, and other livestock graze on the field, they cause movements that stir up various insects. As the insects are stirred up, the cattle egrets following the livestock catch and feed upon them.
(B) In India, lone golden jackals expelled from their pack have been known to attach themselves to a particular tiger, trailing it at a safe distance in order to feed on the big cat's kills.
(C) Bacteria living in the stomachs of cows and and other ruminant animals.
(D) Birds will often follow an army ant raids on a forest floor. As the army ant colony travels on the forest floor, it stirs up various flying insect species. As the insects flee from the army ants, the birds following the ants catch the fleeing insects.
(E) Orchids and mosses grow on the trunks or branches of trees. They get the light they need as well as nutrients that run down along the tree.
My response: (E) Orchids and mosses grow on the trunks or branches of trees. They get the light they need as well as nutrients that run down along the tree.
I read the question wrong, I went with an answer that was commensalism and was confused because to me at least two of the answers were an example of commensalism.
Correct answer: (C) Bacteria living in the stomachs of cows and and other ruminant animals.
Commensalism is a class of relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits but the other is unaffected. Cows eat grass and hay almost exclusively. Cows. and other ruminant animals, have a special type of stomach called a rumen, which is home to billions of microbes that consume grass and hay. These bacteria, fungi, and protists provide nutrients that the cow can digest. Without these microbes, the cow would die. The ungulates benefit from the cellulase produced by the bacteria, which facilitates digestion; the bacteria benefit from having a stable supply of nutrients in the host environment.
17)Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)?
(A) mutualism
(B) commensalism
(C) parasitism
(D) territoriality
(E) predation
My response: (A) mutualism
I confused intra (within) with inter (between) so I thought it meant interactions among different species.
Correct answer: (D) Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions.
18) The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora include surface seaweeds and whose fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
(A) intertidal zone
(B) pelagic zone
(C) benthic zone
(D) abyssal zone
(E) hadal zone
My response: none
Either no time, or genuine no idea what this is, most likely both
Correct answer: (B)
21). Energy enters this system as sunlight. If a leaf from the plant contains 10 calories of energy and the leaf is totally consumed by the grasshopper, which is then totally consumed by the songbird, which is then totally consumed by the owl, about how much of the energy from the leaf is eventually available as energy for the owl to use?
(A) 0.001 calories
(B) 0.01 calories
(C) 10 calories
(D) 100 calories
(E) 1,000 calories
My response: (A) 0.001 calories
I know that only 10% of the energy is transferred and the rest is released as heat, I moved the decimal point too many times. I miscounted how many trophic levels there were
Correct answer: (B) 0.01 calories
A general rule of thumb is that approximately 10% of the energy entering one level of a trophic level passes onto the next higher level. Leaf (10 calories) > grasshopper (I calorie) > songbird (0.1 calorie)> owl (0.01 calorie). This loss of energy is consistent with the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which states that no energy conversion is 100% efficient. The loss occurs as energy is trapped in indigestible parts and energy (heat) lost in metabolic processes.
23). In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen below standards required by the U.S Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil absorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investment in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost of constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
The Catskill Watershed provides _______ to New York City.
(A) natural resource services
(B) market services
(C) social service
(D) economic services
(E) ecosystem services
My response: none
All of these answers are plausible and I could not decide which answer to choose in the limited time.
Correct answer: (E) ecosystem services
Humankind benefits from a multitude of resources and processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystem services and include products like clean drinking water and processes such as the decomposition of wastes.
27). The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle is
(A) nitrate
(B) urea
(C) protein
(D) nitrite
(E) amino acid
My response: (A) nitrate
I had no idea I was supposed to know this exact part from the nitrogen cycle
Correct answer: (D) nitrite
The conversion of ammonium to nitrate is performed primarily by soil living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium is performed by bacteria such as the Nitrosomonas species, which converts ammonia to nitrites. Other bacterial species, such as Nitrobacter, are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites into nitrates. It is important fir the nitrites to be converted to nitrates because accumulated nitrites are toxic to plant life.
Populations 41%
29). The graph below is of a paramecium population growing in culture over a period of 30 hours. If food is a limiting factor for this population, then increasing the amount of food available in the water at the beginning of the experiment will...
(A) increase the population density between 0-15 hours
(B) decrease the population density after the carrying capacity has been reached
(C) have no effect on the population density between 0-15 hours
(D) decrease the time it takes for the population to reach its carrying capacity
(E) all of the above are true
My response: (D) decrease the time it takes for the population to reach its carrying capacity
Since food availability limits the growth rate of the population I assumed that it would take a shorter amount of time to reach carrying capacity since there are more available resources.
Correct answer: (C) have no effect on the population density between 0-15 hours
having extra food in the water between 0-15 hours will generally not affect the population density during this time period. Assuming ideal conditions with more than enough food available during this time period, the paramecium are already producing at their maximum capacity. however, if there is extra food available at all times during the 30 hours of the experiment, then the time period of exponential growth is extended, increasing the population density until a point is reached that another limiting factor such as oxygen content in the water begins to affect the density of paramecium that can survive; at which point a new carrying capacity is established.
30). Consider the following organisms
I. elephant
II. weeds
III. mice
IV. acorn tree
V. mosquitos
Which of the above would be considered K-strategists?
(A) I
(B) II, III, IV
(C) I and IV
(D) II and IV
(E) V
My answer: (B) II, III, IV
I don't remember the difference between k and r strategists and I guessed
Correct response: In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates, as the ability to compete successfully for limited resources is crucial and populations of K-selected organisms typically are very constant and close to the maximum that the environment can bear (unlike r-selected populations, where population sizes can change much more rapidly). Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-selection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Examples of organisms with k-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, humans and whales.
31) In wild populations, individuals most often show a _____ pattern of dispersion
(A) clumped
(B) uniform
(C) random
(D) scattered
(E) chaotic
My response: (C) random
It seemed like a good answer at the time, and if it is individuals and not species then individuals would live where it best suits them so the distribution would be random.
Correct answer: (A) clumped
in clumped distribution, the distance between neighboring individuals is minimized and is found in environments that are characterized by patchy resources. Clumped distribution is the most common type of dispersion found in nature because animals need certain resources to survive, and when these resources become scarce during certain parts of the year, animals tend to "clump" together around these crucial resources. Individuals might be clustered together in an area due to social factors such as herds or family groups. Organisms that usually serve as prey form clumped distribution in areas where they can hide and detect predators easily. Other causes of clumped distribution in species also acts as a mechanism against predation as well as an efficient mechanism to trap or corner prey.
32). Examine the following diagram
Which of the choices above would be characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
My response: n/a
I couldn't make sense of the graph
Correct answer: (D) D
Choice D is known as Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are one of the species that show this patter of survivorship. In type III curves (B) the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life, with relatively low rates of death for those surviving bottleneck. this type of curve is characteristic of species that produce a large number of offspring
36) Examine the age distribution diagrams below.
Which of the following statements would be TRUE?
I. A is experiencing rapid growth, B is experiencing slow growth, and C is experiencing a decline in growth
II. A is experiencing a slow growth, B is experiencing rapid growth, and C is experiencing a decline in growth
III. A is experiencing a decline in growth, B is experiencing a rapid growth, and C is experiencing slow growth
IV. A would be typical for Nigeria, B would be typical for Germany, and C would be typical for the United States.
V. A would be typical for the United States, B would be typical for Nigeria, and C would be typical for Germany
(A) I
(B) I and III
(C) I and V
(D) II and IV
(E) III and IV
My answer: (D) II and IV
I got confused, A is experiencing rapid growth, but a high death rate, which is why I thought it was slow growth, and I believe it would be typical of an underdeveloped country where the birth rate and death rate are high. I a
Correct answer: (A) I
Four general types of age structure diagrams have been identified by the fertility and mortality rates of a country.
(1) Stable pyramid- a population pyramid showing an unchanging pattern of fertility and low mortality
(2) Stationary pyramid- a population pyramid typical of countries with low fertility and low mortality, very similar to constrictive a pyramid
(3) Expansive pyramid- a population pyramid showing a broad base, indicating high proportion of children, a rapid rate of population growth, and a low proportion of older people. This type of pyramid indicates a population in which there is a high birthrate, a high death rate, and a short life expectancy. This is the typical pattern for less economically developed countries, due to little access to and incentive to use birth control, negative environmental factors (for example, lack of clean water), and poor access to health care. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Nigeria.
(4) Constrictive pyramid- a population pyramid showing lower numbers or percentages of younger people, low birthrate, higher numbers or percentages of older people due to longer life expectancies, and a low death rate. This pyramid is often a typical pattern for a very developed country, a high over-all education, an easy access to and incentive to use birth control, good health care, and a few or no negative environmental factors. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Germany and to a lesser extent the United States.
37) The most populous countries in the world are India, China, and
(A) Russia
(B) United States
(C) Mexico
(D) Indonesia
(E) Pakistan
My response: n/a
I was torn between Russia, United States, and Pakistan and didn't have time to answer
Correct answer: (B) United States
39). Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
(A) increase in birthrate
(B) decrease in death rate
(C) a lower infant mortality rate
(D) immigration
(E) a desire to have more children
My response: (C) a lower infant mortality rate
If more babies are surviving into adulthood, there are more people who can reproduce
Correct answer: (B) decrease in death rate
The combination of decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
Land and Water Use 30%
40). Which of the following was NOT a major component of the First Green Revolution
(A) Genetic engineering of food crops
(B) Widespread use of synthetic nitrogen-based fertilizers
(C) Widespread use of pesticides
(D) Development of major modern irrigation projects
(E) Development of new crop varieties through selective breeding technology
My response: (C) Widespread use of pesticides
It doesnt make sense to me that the widespread use of pesticides would be part of the First Green Revolution, however I understand this question as asking which of the answers was not an effect of the First Green Revolution, I also did not know when the First Green Revolution happened
Correct answer: (A) Genetic engineering of food crops
Genetically modified crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contin food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants.
41). Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
(A) Carbamates
(B) Pyrethroids
(C) Organophosphates
(D) DDT
(E) Organochlorines
My response: (B) Pyrethroids
It was a guess, I am not familiar with any of these insecticides except DDT, and from what I remember they were more of an issue during the 20th century
Correct answer: (C) Organophosphates
Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
43). The type of timber-harvesting shown below is known as
(A) increase in birthrate
(B) decrease in death rate
(C) a lower infant mortality rate
(D) immigration
(E) a desire to have more children
My response: (C) a lower infant mortality rate
If more babies are surviving into adulthood, there are more people who can reproduce
Correct answer: (B) decrease in death rate
The combination of decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
Land and Water Use 30%
40). Which of the following was NOT a major component of the First Green Revolution
(A) Genetic engineering of food crops
(B) Widespread use of synthetic nitrogen-based fertilizers
(C) Widespread use of pesticides
(D) Development of major modern irrigation projects
(E) Development of new crop varieties through selective breeding technology
My response: (C) Widespread use of pesticides
It doesnt make sense to me that the widespread use of pesticides would be part of the First Green Revolution, however I understand this question as asking which of the answers was not an effect of the First Green Revolution, I also did not know when the First Green Revolution happened
Correct answer: (A) Genetic engineering of food crops
Genetically modified crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contin food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants.
41). Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
(A) Carbamates
(B) Pyrethroids
(C) Organophosphates
(D) DDT
(E) Organochlorines
My response: (B) Pyrethroids
It was a guess, I am not familiar with any of these insecticides except DDT, and from what I remember they were more of an issue during the 20th century
Correct answer: (C) Organophosphates
Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
43). The type of timber-harvesting shown below is known as
(A) seed tree harvesting
(B) group selection
(C) clear-cutting
(D) single tree selection
(E) shelterwood cutting
My response: (D) single tree selection
I guessed
Correct answer: (E) shelterwood cutting
In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 years. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because a "shelter" is left to protect them.
45). Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl?
(A) Multi-use zoning
(B) High-density zoning
(C) Car-independent zoning
(D) Job sprawl
(E) High unemployment
My response: (B) High-density zoning
Urban=city, city= a lot of people, a lot of people= high density
Correct answer: (D) Job sprawl
Job sprawl is defined as a low-density, geographically spread out patterns of employment, where the majority of jobs in a given metropolitan area are located outside of the main city;s central business district and suburbs. It is often the result of urban disinvestment and the desire of many companies to locate in low-density areas that are often more affordable and offer potential for expansion.
46) During which U.S presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
(A) Abraham Lincoln (1860-1865)
(B) Franklin Roosevelt (1933-1945)
(C) Harry Truman (1945-1953)
(D) Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
(E) Ronald Reagan (1981-1989)
My response: (B) Franklin Roosevelt (1933-1944)
This seemed like an appropriate time to choose because cars were becoming more popular, and it was a few years before World War 2
Correct answer: (D) Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during World War 2, he had first hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,00 miles.
47). Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on Earth to the largest?
(A) Agricultural< forests <cities
(B) Forests < cities <agricultural
(C) Cities <forests <agricultural
(D) Forests <agricultural <cities
(E) Agricultural <cities< forests
My response: (B) Forests < cities <agricultural
Forests are being completely wiped out, and cities are taking their place, but there is more land used for agriculture because people need to eat
Correct answer: (C) Cities <forests <agricultural
Cities occupy approximately 5% of the Earth's land surface; forests occupy approximately one third if the Earth;s surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the Earth's land surface.
49). Rainwater runoff from US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a stream channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
(A) preservation
(B) remediation
(C) mitigation
(D) restoration
(E) All of the above
My response: (E)
When in doubt C it out, or all of the above, in this case all of the above
Correct answer: (C) Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state.
50). The type of mining that produces 85% of minerals (excluding petroleum and natural gas) is the United States, including 98% of metallic ores, is known as
(A) surface mining
(B) subsurface mining
(C) in-situ mining
(D) long wall mining
(E) room and pillar mining
My answer: (B) subsurface mining
I guessed, I dont know what in-situ mining is, or any of the answers. I only know about mountain top removal, which wasn't even an option (Actually it turns out it is, I didnt know it fell underneath another category)
Correct answer: (A) surface mining
Surface mining is done by removing (stripping) the surface vegetation, dirt, and if necessary layers of bedrock in order to reach buried ore deposits. Techniques of surface mining include open-pit mining, which consists of recovery of materials from an open pit in the ground, quarrying or gathering building materials from an open pit mine; strip mining, which consists of stripping the surface layers off to reveal ore/seams underneath; and mountaintop removal, commonly associates with coal mining, whcih involves taking the top of a mountain off to reach ore deposits.
51) The type of fishing illustrated below is
(B) group selection
(C) clear-cutting
(D) single tree selection
(E) shelterwood cutting
My response: (D) single tree selection
I guessed
Correct answer: (E) shelterwood cutting
In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 years. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because a "shelter" is left to protect them.
45). Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl?
(A) Multi-use zoning
(B) High-density zoning
(C) Car-independent zoning
(D) Job sprawl
(E) High unemployment
My response: (B) High-density zoning
Urban=city, city= a lot of people, a lot of people= high density
Correct answer: (D) Job sprawl
Job sprawl is defined as a low-density, geographically spread out patterns of employment, where the majority of jobs in a given metropolitan area are located outside of the main city;s central business district and suburbs. It is often the result of urban disinvestment and the desire of many companies to locate in low-density areas that are often more affordable and offer potential for expansion.
46) During which U.S presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
(A) Abraham Lincoln (1860-1865)
(B) Franklin Roosevelt (1933-1945)
(C) Harry Truman (1945-1953)
(D) Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
(E) Ronald Reagan (1981-1989)
My response: (B) Franklin Roosevelt (1933-1944)
This seemed like an appropriate time to choose because cars were becoming more popular, and it was a few years before World War 2
Correct answer: (D) Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during World War 2, he had first hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,00 miles.
47). Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on Earth to the largest?
(A) Agricultural< forests <cities
(B) Forests < cities <agricultural
(C) Cities <forests <agricultural
(D) Forests <agricultural <cities
(E) Agricultural <cities< forests
My response: (B) Forests < cities <agricultural
Forests are being completely wiped out, and cities are taking their place, but there is more land used for agriculture because people need to eat
Correct answer: (C) Cities <forests <agricultural
Cities occupy approximately 5% of the Earth's land surface; forests occupy approximately one third if the Earth;s surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the Earth's land surface.
49). Rainwater runoff from US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a stream channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
(A) preservation
(B) remediation
(C) mitigation
(D) restoration
(E) All of the above
My response: (E)
When in doubt C it out, or all of the above, in this case all of the above
Correct answer: (C) Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state.
50). The type of mining that produces 85% of minerals (excluding petroleum and natural gas) is the United States, including 98% of metallic ores, is known as
(A) surface mining
(B) subsurface mining
(C) in-situ mining
(D) long wall mining
(E) room and pillar mining
My answer: (B) subsurface mining
I guessed, I dont know what in-situ mining is, or any of the answers. I only know about mountain top removal, which wasn't even an option (Actually it turns out it is, I didnt know it fell underneath another category)
Correct answer: (A) surface mining
Surface mining is done by removing (stripping) the surface vegetation, dirt, and if necessary layers of bedrock in order to reach buried ore deposits. Techniques of surface mining include open-pit mining, which consists of recovery of materials from an open pit in the ground, quarrying or gathering building materials from an open pit mine; strip mining, which consists of stripping the surface layers off to reveal ore/seams underneath; and mountaintop removal, commonly associates with coal mining, whcih involves taking the top of a mountain off to reach ore deposits.
51) The type of fishing illustrated below is
(A) gill netting
(B) long lining
(reef netting
(D) trolling
(E) purse seining
My response: (D) Trolling
I guessed
Correct answer: (E) Purse seining
Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
Energy Resources and Consumption 40%
53). A store uses one hundred 200 watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
(A) 50,000
(B) 60,000
(C) 6,000,000
(D) 30,000,000
(E) 60,000,000
My response: n/a
I dont math
Correct answer: (B) 60,000
100 light bulbs/1 x 200 watts/ 1 lightbulb x 10 hours/ 1 day x 6 days/ 1 week x 50 weeks/ 1 year x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts = 60,000 kilowatt x hours/ year
54). The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoline. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 130%
(D) 140%
(E) 13000%
My response: (D) 140%
It seemed most logical at the time
Correct answer: (E) 13000%
The percent change is calculated as %= Vf -Vi/ Vi x 100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, %= 112-8/8 x 100%= 1300%
57) In the United States, on average, ___________ energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
(A) 25% less
(B) 50% less
(C) 50% more
(D) 100% more
(E) 250% more
My response: (C) 50% more
Another guess
Correct answer: (E) The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it. In fact, over the course of a year nearly one third of a typical utility bill in the United States goes to heating. For most of the United States, on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (25 degrees C). For example, during the winter, if the temperature outside is 35 degrees F (2 degrees C), that represents a 40 degree F difference. However, if the outdoor temperature in summer reaches 95 degrees F (35 degrees C), that represents a 20 degree F difference in order to keep the indoor temperature at 75 degrees F (24 degrees C).
61). Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
(A) United States
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) France
My response: (D) Japan
I could rule out the United States and China because the United States is all about oil, and China is the largest coal consumer with the most coal powered factories. I also know there was a nuclear fall out in Japan at some point, so that seemed most logical to me.
Correct answer: (E) France
Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to the 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe.
63). Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
(A) Nuclear
(B) Burning coal
(C) Burning natural gas
(D) Wind power
(E) Hydroelectric power plants
My response: (D) Wind power
If the United States had wind farms in four states that would be enough to supply the entire United States with electricity, wind is not only renewable but inexhaustible, why is this not the answer? It has a huge net energy, and nuclear has a lower to no net energy yield. Bruh.
Correct answer: (E) Hydroelectric power plants
Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes. A typical example is domestic electric lighting. Less than 1% of the energy consumed to provide the electricity is ultimately converted into light energy. The other 99% is wasted in the supply chain. Using a conventional fossil fueled generating plant, losses accumulate as follows:
65). Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
(A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
(B) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
(C) National Science Foundation (NSF)
(D) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
(E) Office of Weights and Measures (OWM)
My response: (A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
EPA was the only answer I am familiar with, and I could not remember what CAFE stood for
Correct answer: (B) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
First enacted by Congress in 1975, the purpose of CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy) is to reduce energy consumption by increasing the fuel economy of cars and light trucks. The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the United States, while the EPA provides the fuel economy data and calculates the average fuel economy for each manufacturer.
66). A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent light bulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs.
(A) $7.00
(B) $13.00
(C) $42.00
(D) $108.00
(E) $115.00
My response: n/a
I dont math
Correct answer: (E) $115.00
To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 x $2.00= $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20-$13=$7. The total cost of the energy for the incandescent bulbs would be:
10 incandescent light bulbs/ 1 x 150 watts/ 1 incandescent light bulb x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts x 1,000 hours/ 1 x $0.10/ 1 kWh = $150.00
The total cost of energy for the single CFL bulb would be:
10 CFL bulbs/ 1 x 42 watts/ 1 CFL bulb x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts x 10,000 hours/ 1 x $0.10/ 1kWh= $42.00
Therefore you save $150.00-$42.000=$108.00 in energy for a total savings of $108.00 in energy + $7.00 saving in cost of bulb= $115.00
67). Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States?
(A) Solar
(B) Biomass
(C) Wind
(D) Hydroelectric
(E) Geothermal
My response: Geothermal
It seems like the most obscure of all the options
Correct answer: (A) Solar
(B) long lining
(reef netting
(D) trolling
(E) purse seining
My response: (D) Trolling
I guessed
Correct answer: (E) Purse seining
Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
Energy Resources and Consumption 40%
53). A store uses one hundred 200 watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
(A) 50,000
(B) 60,000
(C) 6,000,000
(D) 30,000,000
(E) 60,000,000
My response: n/a
I dont math
Correct answer: (B) 60,000
100 light bulbs/1 x 200 watts/ 1 lightbulb x 10 hours/ 1 day x 6 days/ 1 week x 50 weeks/ 1 year x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts = 60,000 kilowatt x hours/ year
54). The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoline. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 130%
(D) 140%
(E) 13000%
My response: (D) 140%
It seemed most logical at the time
Correct answer: (E) 13000%
The percent change is calculated as %= Vf -Vi/ Vi x 100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, %= 112-8/8 x 100%= 1300%
57) In the United States, on average, ___________ energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
(A) 25% less
(B) 50% less
(C) 50% more
(D) 100% more
(E) 250% more
My response: (C) 50% more
Another guess
Correct answer: (E) The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it. In fact, over the course of a year nearly one third of a typical utility bill in the United States goes to heating. For most of the United States, on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (25 degrees C). For example, during the winter, if the temperature outside is 35 degrees F (2 degrees C), that represents a 40 degree F difference. However, if the outdoor temperature in summer reaches 95 degrees F (35 degrees C), that represents a 20 degree F difference in order to keep the indoor temperature at 75 degrees F (24 degrees C).
61). Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
(A) United States
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) France
My response: (D) Japan
I could rule out the United States and China because the United States is all about oil, and China is the largest coal consumer with the most coal powered factories. I also know there was a nuclear fall out in Japan at some point, so that seemed most logical to me.
Correct answer: (E) France
Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to the 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe.
63). Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
(A) Nuclear
(B) Burning coal
(C) Burning natural gas
(D) Wind power
(E) Hydroelectric power plants
My response: (D) Wind power
If the United States had wind farms in four states that would be enough to supply the entire United States with electricity, wind is not only renewable but inexhaustible, why is this not the answer? It has a huge net energy, and nuclear has a lower to no net energy yield. Bruh.
Correct answer: (E) Hydroelectric power plants
Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes. A typical example is domestic electric lighting. Less than 1% of the energy consumed to provide the electricity is ultimately converted into light energy. The other 99% is wasted in the supply chain. Using a conventional fossil fueled generating plant, losses accumulate as follows:
- 10% of the energy content of the fuel is lost in combustion and only 90% of the calorific content is transferred to the steam
- the steam turbine efficiency in converting the energy the energy in converting the energy content of the steam into mechanical energy is limited to about 40%
- Transmission of the electrical energy over the distribution grid between the power station and the consumer results in a distribution loss of 10% mainly due to the resistance of the electrical cables.
- Further energy is lost due to the energy conversion efficiency of the end user's appliance. Incandescent lighting is particularly inefficient, converting only 2% of the electrical energy into light.
65). Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
(A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
(B) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
(C) National Science Foundation (NSF)
(D) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
(E) Office of Weights and Measures (OWM)
My response: (A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
EPA was the only answer I am familiar with, and I could not remember what CAFE stood for
Correct answer: (B) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
First enacted by Congress in 1975, the purpose of CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy) is to reduce energy consumption by increasing the fuel economy of cars and light trucks. The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the United States, while the EPA provides the fuel economy data and calculates the average fuel economy for each manufacturer.
66). A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent light bulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs.
(A) $7.00
(B) $13.00
(C) $42.00
(D) $108.00
(E) $115.00
My response: n/a
I dont math
Correct answer: (E) $115.00
To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 x $2.00= $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20-$13=$7. The total cost of the energy for the incandescent bulbs would be:
10 incandescent light bulbs/ 1 x 150 watts/ 1 incandescent light bulb x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts x 1,000 hours/ 1 x $0.10/ 1 kWh = $150.00
The total cost of energy for the single CFL bulb would be:
10 CFL bulbs/ 1 x 42 watts/ 1 CFL bulb x 1 kilowatt/ 1,000 watts x 10,000 hours/ 1 x $0.10/ 1kWh= $42.00
Therefore you save $150.00-$42.000=$108.00 in energy for a total savings of $108.00 in energy + $7.00 saving in cost of bulb= $115.00
67). Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States?
(A) Solar
(B) Biomass
(C) Wind
(D) Hydroelectric
(E) Geothermal
My response: Geothermal
It seems like the most obscure of all the options
Correct answer: (A) Solar
Pollution 25%
70). 1,500 parts per billion would be the same concentraton as _____ parts per million.
(A) 0.15
(B) 1.5
(C) 15
(D) 150
(E) 1,500
My response: n/a
Nope, nope, nope, no more math
Correct answer: (B) 1.5
This type of problm can easily be solved by factor analysis.
1,500 parts/ billion x 1 billion/ 1,000,000,000 parts x 1,000,000 parts/ 1 million= 1.5 ppm
71). Which one of the criteria pollutants listed below contributes to the formation of both acid deposition AND photochemical smog?
(A) CO
(B) NO2
(C) O3
(D) Particulates
(E) SO2
My response: SO2
Sulfur dioxide is a contributor of acid deposition, so it seemed most logical to me.
Correct answer: (B) NO2 reacts with H2O to form nitrous acid and nitric acid,, which are both components found in acid deposition (rain): 2NO2+H2O----> HNO2+HNO3. Nitrogen dioxide also absorbs light energy and breaks down to form nitric oxide and atomic oxygen. Nitric oxide can then combine with ozone (O3) to form nitrogen dioxide is greater than the concentration of nitric oxide, then ozone is formed and can reach dangerous levels. if the concentration of nitrogen dioxide is less than the concentration of nitric acid, then the ozone is destroyed almost instantly, keeping the concentration of ozone stable and below a harmful threshold.Sulfur dioxide is only involved in formation of acid rain, not photochemical smog.
72). During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this event
(A) Cold air that is heavier lies above a mass of warmer air that wants to rise, trapping particulates close to the ground
(B) Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
(C) There is no colder air mass to provide a difference in temperature; therefore, the air stalls and traps particulates close to the ground
(D) Warmer air is trapped between two cold fronts, trapping the particulates within the warm air mass
(E) Warm air rises while the colder air sinks. Particulates within the cold air are then brought closer to the ground and their concentration increases, producing smog
My response: n/a
In order to answer this question I need to know what a "temperature inversion" is, since I don't know what that is I skipped this question
Correct answer: (B) Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
Temperature inversions usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground and are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress.
73). Given the following pollutants
I. CFCs
II. VOCs
III. Radon
IV. PANs
V. Asbestos
Which are NOT naturally occuring indoor air pollutants
(A) I and II
(B) I and IV
(C) I, II, and IV
(D) III and IV
(E) I, III, IV, v
My response: n/a
I DONT KNOW WHAT THESE ARE!
Correct answer: (C) I, II, and IV
"Naturally occurring" means occurring in nature in a free state. Both the radon and asbestos are found in nature and are sometimes found in indoor air samples. If radioactive radon occurs in the bedrock near a building, it can seep into a basement or crawlspace and eventually result in lung cancer. Asbestos was often used as insulation material. When asbestos fibers are inhaled, they are trapped in the lung, which causes the lungs to produce acids. In time, this can lead to diseases such as asbestosis, lung cancer, or mesothelioma. Chlorofluorocarbons and peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs) are not naturally occurring in their free state and are generally not considered indoor air pollutants. VOCs (volatile organic compunds) such as formaldehyde, are indoor air pollutants and are commonly found in carpet, paneling, furniture, paint, plastics, cleaning fluids, etc., but unlike CFCs and PANs, they are not naturally occuring.
74) Which of the following criteria were ised for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentrations of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III, and IV
(E) III, IV, and V
My response: n/a
I did not know the answer or have a good educated guess
Correct answer: (A) I and II
National Ambient Air quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country, Primary standards are designed to protect human health, with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations such as children, the elderly, and individuals suffering from respiratory diseases. Secondary standards are designed to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant.
75). Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the EPA.
II. Sound measured a 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels
III. Noise pollutions is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live in the water do not hear
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the EPA is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise abatement activities.
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II, III, and IV
(D) I, III, and V
(E) All statements are false
My response: n/a
I'm a smart person, but you cant possibly expect me to have all this memorized
Correct Answer: (E) All statements are false
Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA a branch of the U.S Department of Labor. A difference of 20 decibels corresponds to an increase of 10 x 10 or 100 times in intensity, Reef fish, whales, dolphins, and other marine species rely on sounds to communicate. Under the Clear Air Act, the EPA established the Office of Noise Abatement and Control to carry out investigations and studies on noise and its effect on the public health and welfare. Through ONAC, the EPA coordinated all federal noise control activities, but in 1981 the administration concluded that noise issues were best handled at state and local level. As a result, ONAC was closed and primary responsibility of addressing noise issues were transferred to state and local governments. However, EPA retains authority to investigate and study noise and its effect, disseminate information to the public regarding noise pollution and its adverse health effects, respond to inquiries on matters related to noise, and evaluate the effectiveness of existing regulations for protecting the public health and welfare.
76). Which of the following forms of water pollution affects the largest number of people worldwide?
(A) Brackish water resulting from flooding
(B) Water that is not properly processed through sewage treatment plants
(C) Water containing pollutants from industrial factories
(D) Waterborne pathogens and diseases
(E) Groundwater contamination resulting from illegal dumping of toxic materials
My response: (C) Water containing pollutants from industrial factories
This seemed most logical to me because there are factories all around the world that do not have environmental regulations on them, and there are factories that have been grandfathered, factories contribute to air and water pollution, contaminating water that is used for farming and drinking
Correct answer: (D) Waterborne pathogens and diseases
The World Health Organization has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water related acute and chronic diseases. Some 3.5 million people, many of them young children, die each year from water-borne diseases such as intestinal diarrhea, cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery, caused by microbially-contaminated water supplies that are linked to deficient or non existent sanitation and sewage disposal facilities. Globally, water-borne diseases are the second leading cause of death in children below the age of five years, while childhood mortality rates from acture respiratory infections ranks first.
70). 1,500 parts per billion would be the same concentraton as _____ parts per million.
(A) 0.15
(B) 1.5
(C) 15
(D) 150
(E) 1,500
My response: n/a
Nope, nope, nope, no more math
Correct answer: (B) 1.5
This type of problm can easily be solved by factor analysis.
1,500 parts/ billion x 1 billion/ 1,000,000,000 parts x 1,000,000 parts/ 1 million= 1.5 ppm
71). Which one of the criteria pollutants listed below contributes to the formation of both acid deposition AND photochemical smog?
(A) CO
(B) NO2
(C) O3
(D) Particulates
(E) SO2
My response: SO2
Sulfur dioxide is a contributor of acid deposition, so it seemed most logical to me.
Correct answer: (B) NO2 reacts with H2O to form nitrous acid and nitric acid,, which are both components found in acid deposition (rain): 2NO2+H2O----> HNO2+HNO3. Nitrogen dioxide also absorbs light energy and breaks down to form nitric oxide and atomic oxygen. Nitric oxide can then combine with ozone (O3) to form nitrogen dioxide is greater than the concentration of nitric oxide, then ozone is formed and can reach dangerous levels. if the concentration of nitrogen dioxide is less than the concentration of nitric acid, then the ozone is destroyed almost instantly, keeping the concentration of ozone stable and below a harmful threshold.Sulfur dioxide is only involved in formation of acid rain, not photochemical smog.
72). During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this event
(A) Cold air that is heavier lies above a mass of warmer air that wants to rise, trapping particulates close to the ground
(B) Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
(C) There is no colder air mass to provide a difference in temperature; therefore, the air stalls and traps particulates close to the ground
(D) Warmer air is trapped between two cold fronts, trapping the particulates within the warm air mass
(E) Warm air rises while the colder air sinks. Particulates within the cold air are then brought closer to the ground and their concentration increases, producing smog
My response: n/a
In order to answer this question I need to know what a "temperature inversion" is, since I don't know what that is I skipped this question
Correct answer: (B) Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
Temperature inversions usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground and are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress.
73). Given the following pollutants
I. CFCs
II. VOCs
III. Radon
IV. PANs
V. Asbestos
Which are NOT naturally occuring indoor air pollutants
(A) I and II
(B) I and IV
(C) I, II, and IV
(D) III and IV
(E) I, III, IV, v
My response: n/a
I DONT KNOW WHAT THESE ARE!
Correct answer: (C) I, II, and IV
"Naturally occurring" means occurring in nature in a free state. Both the radon and asbestos are found in nature and are sometimes found in indoor air samples. If radioactive radon occurs in the bedrock near a building, it can seep into a basement or crawlspace and eventually result in lung cancer. Asbestos was often used as insulation material. When asbestos fibers are inhaled, they are trapped in the lung, which causes the lungs to produce acids. In time, this can lead to diseases such as asbestosis, lung cancer, or mesothelioma. Chlorofluorocarbons and peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs) are not naturally occurring in their free state and are generally not considered indoor air pollutants. VOCs (volatile organic compunds) such as formaldehyde, are indoor air pollutants and are commonly found in carpet, paneling, furniture, paint, plastics, cleaning fluids, etc., but unlike CFCs and PANs, they are not naturally occuring.
74) Which of the following criteria were ised for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentrations of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III, and IV
(E) III, IV, and V
My response: n/a
I did not know the answer or have a good educated guess
Correct answer: (A) I and II
National Ambient Air quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country, Primary standards are designed to protect human health, with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations such as children, the elderly, and individuals suffering from respiratory diseases. Secondary standards are designed to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant.
75). Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the EPA.
II. Sound measured a 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels
III. Noise pollutions is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live in the water do not hear
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the EPA is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise abatement activities.
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II, III, and IV
(D) I, III, and V
(E) All statements are false
My response: n/a
I'm a smart person, but you cant possibly expect me to have all this memorized
Correct Answer: (E) All statements are false
Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA a branch of the U.S Department of Labor. A difference of 20 decibels corresponds to an increase of 10 x 10 or 100 times in intensity, Reef fish, whales, dolphins, and other marine species rely on sounds to communicate. Under the Clear Air Act, the EPA established the Office of Noise Abatement and Control to carry out investigations and studies on noise and its effect on the public health and welfare. Through ONAC, the EPA coordinated all federal noise control activities, but in 1981 the administration concluded that noise issues were best handled at state and local level. As a result, ONAC was closed and primary responsibility of addressing noise issues were transferred to state and local governments. However, EPA retains authority to investigate and study noise and its effect, disseminate information to the public regarding noise pollution and its adverse health effects, respond to inquiries on matters related to noise, and evaluate the effectiveness of existing regulations for protecting the public health and welfare.
76). Which of the following forms of water pollution affects the largest number of people worldwide?
(A) Brackish water resulting from flooding
(B) Water that is not properly processed through sewage treatment plants
(C) Water containing pollutants from industrial factories
(D) Waterborne pathogens and diseases
(E) Groundwater contamination resulting from illegal dumping of toxic materials
My response: (C) Water containing pollutants from industrial factories
This seemed most logical to me because there are factories all around the world that do not have environmental regulations on them, and there are factories that have been grandfathered, factories contribute to air and water pollution, contaminating water that is used for farming and drinking
Correct answer: (D) Waterborne pathogens and diseases
The World Health Organization has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water related acute and chronic diseases. Some 3.5 million people, many of them young children, die each year from water-borne diseases such as intestinal diarrhea, cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery, caused by microbially-contaminated water supplies that are linked to deficient or non existent sanitation and sewage disposal facilities. Globally, water-borne diseases are the second leading cause of death in children below the age of five years, while childhood mortality rates from acture respiratory infections ranks first.